- #1

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I think this has to do with the Banach-Schroder theorem, but am not sure. I know it is a definition in group theory, but am not sure how to prove it since it seem pretty self explanitory to me.

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- Thread starter JSG31883
- Start date

- #1

- 13

- 0

I think this has to do with the Banach-Schroder theorem, but am not sure. I know it is a definition in group theory, but am not sure how to prove it since it seem pretty self explanitory to me.

- #2

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Can someone help????

- #3

matt grime

Science Advisor

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the result should be easy isnce it just checking 3 things for the property of equidecomposability, whatever that may be, which are generally trivial for groups since groups have inverses, and identity and composition is associative. eg if X~Y and g in G effects this relation, then g^{-1} will (probably) effect the relation Y~X, if X~Y and Y~Z and the relation is because of elements f and g resp. then gf wil mean that X~Y, and X~X because e(X)=X.

note i haven't a clue what equidecompsoability is, but this will be the proof, i'm almost sure of it.

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